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Regional·CA-2

Rib Fractures: The Pulmonary Spiral

80 y.o. with multiple rib fractures. Defend your regional strategy to prevent pneumonia and mechanical ventilation.

The stem

An 80 y.o. male with a history of heart failure (EF 35%) and COPD presents with 6 unilateral rib fractures after a fall. He is tachypneic (RR 28) and is 'splinting' due to severe pain. He is currently on room air with an O2 Sat of 89%. He is on aspirin and Plavix for a recent stent. PHYS: BP 135/85, HR 95, RR 28, O2 Sat 89%.

Focus

Regional anesthesia in the anticoagulated patient, preventing pulmonary decline, and the choice between epidural vs. fascial plane blocks.

Examination relevance

A classic geriatric trauma case. How do you provide 'gold standard' analgesia when the patient is on Plavix and has a weak heart?

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Expert sample response

This elderly patient is in the 'Pulmonary Spiral'—his rib pain is causing splinting and hypoxia, which will inevitably lead to pneumonia. My primary goal is robust analgesia to improve his respiratory mechanics.

Since he is on Plavix, a thoracic epidural is absolutely contraindicated due to the risk of spinal hematoma. Instead, I will perform a continuous Erector Spinae Plane (ESP) block or a Serratus Anterior Plane (SAP) block. These fascial plane blocks carry a significantly lower risk of hematoma in the anticoagulated patient and provide excellent analgesia for the chest wall. I will avoid systemic opioids to prevent respiratory depression and delirium. My success will be measured by an improved inspiratory capacity on incentive spirometry and a transition from a 'splinting' respiratory pattern to deep, effective breaths.

Full walkthrough

What the Examiner Is Testing

This case tests whether you know the ASRA guidelines on Plavix and neuraxial anesthesia, and whether you have a viable alternative when the "gold standard" epidural is contraindicated. The examiner wants to see that you understand the pulmonary spiral — splinting leads to atelectasis leads to pneumonia leads to intubation — and that you have a plan to break it.

The Board Trap

The trap is performing a thoracic epidural because "it's the gold standard for rib fractures." Plavix must be held for 5 to 7 days before neuraxial anesthesia per ASRA guidelines due to the risk of epidural hematoma. This patient came in from the ED — Plavix was not held. An epidural hematoma in a patient with COPD and heart failure, who cannot undergo an urgent epidural hematoma evacuation safely, is a potentially catastrophic complication.

Walk-Through: How This Case Plays Out

Examiner: He needs analgesia urgently. Can you do a thoracic epidural?

Me: No. He's on Plavix and it hasn't been held for the required 5 to 7 days per ASRA guidelines. The risk of epidural hematoma is unacceptable. I'd perform an Erector Spinae Plane block instead — bilateral ESP blocks at the level of the fractures. The ESP block is a fascial plane block that carries a dramatically lower risk of hematoma compared to neuraxial techniques, and it provides excellent chest wall coverage for rib fractures.

Examiner: How does an ESP block compare to an epidural for this patient?

Me: An epidural provides complete unilateral or bilateral chest wall and visceral analgesia, and it's the gold standard for multiple rib fractures in a non-anticoagulated patient. But the ESP block works by spreading local anesthetic in the deep fascial plane along the erector spinae muscle, bathing the dorsal rami and providing dermatomal coverage without entering the neuraxial space. The effect is somewhat less dense than a true epidural, but in a patient who can't have an epidural, it's dramatically better than IV opioids alone.

Examiner: After the ESP block, his SpO2 improves to 93% and his RR drops to 22. What's your next concern?

Me: Good early response, but he's still tachypneic and his EF is 35% — I need to watch for volume overload and acute decompensated heart failure. I'd get incentive spirometry started immediately — measuring his inspiratory capacity is my metric for whether the analgesia is working. I'd also avoid NSAIDs aggressively in a patient with reduced EF, as they cause fluid retention and can worsen heart failure. Acetaminophen is safe.

Examiner: His family asks why he can't just have IV morphine for the pain. How do you explain?

Me: I'd explain that IV morphine in an 80-year-old with COPD causes respiratory depression — it suppresses his drive to breathe deeply, which makes the splinting and atelectasis worse, not better. It also causes sedation that increases delirium risk. The regional block gives him better pain control than morphine without any respiratory side effects. If he needs a small amount of opioid for breakthrough pain, I'd use it, but it's not my primary strategy.

Key Phrases That Score Points

  • "Plavix means no epidural — ASRA requires 5-7 days hold. ESP block is my alternative."
  • "Fascial plane blocks carry dramatically lower hematoma risk than neuraxial in the anticoagulated patient."
  • "Incentive spirometry is my success metric — I want to see his inspiratory capacity improve."
  • "IV opioids in a COPD patient cause respiratory depression and worsen the pulmonary spiral."
  • "NSAIDs are contraindicated in heart failure with EF 35% — they cause fluid retention."

Why This Case Appears on the Boards

Rib fractures in the anticoagulated elderly test both your regional anatomy knowledge and your ASRA guideline recall. The ability to pivot from the gold standard to an equally effective and safer alternative when the clinical situation changes is exactly what consultants do.